old ugc net papers: ugc old papers with answers

Net june 2010 management paper I

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?

(A) Punctuality and sincerity (B) Content mastery

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with

(A) The children (B) The principal

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level?

(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is

(A) Digestive upsets (B) Explosive behaviour

5. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.

(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.

(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation. Answer: (C)

6. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian (B) Quite and reactive

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.

The phrase “What is it like?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar, because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind.

How are abstract images formed? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real.

The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered.

Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process (B) human behaviour

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things (B) Preparation of mental images

9. Concept means

(A) A mental image (B) A reality

10. The relation of Percept to Concept is

(A) Positive (B) Negative

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat

12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses (B) A conceived idea

13. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research (B) An applied research

(D) A research with socioeconomic objective Answer: (C)

14. Research is

(A) Searching again and again (B) Finding solution to any problem

Answer: (C)

15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability (B) Useability

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem. (B) Survey of related literature

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of

(A) Basic Research (B) Action Research

18. Normal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively skewed (B) Negatively skewed

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

(A) audience attitude (B) audience knowledge

20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers (B) magazines

21. Didactic communication is
(A) intra-personal                       (B) inter-personal
(C) organizational                         (D) relational                                                         Answer: (B)

22. In communication, the language is
(A) the non-verbal code                 (B) the verbal code
(C) the symbolic code                  (D) the iconic code                                                   Answer: (B)
23. Identify the correct sequence of the following:
(A) Source, channel, message, receiver         (B) Source, receiver, channel, message
(C) Source, message, receiver, channel        (D) Source, message, channel, receiver    Answer: (A)
24. Assertion (A): Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.
Reason (R): Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.                                                                                                Answer: (C)
25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be
(A) 0                               (B) 1/2
(C) 1                               (D) 2                                                                                   Answer: (C)
26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was
(A) Thursday                                  (B) Friday
(C) Saturday                                 (D) Sunday                                                                       Answer: (B)

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit?
(A) Water                                      (B) Tree
(C) World                                     (D) Earth                                                               Answer: (C)

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E?
(A) Brother                                                  (B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law                                        (D) Brother-in-law                           Answer: (D)

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded?
(A) CADNIHWCE                        (B) HANODEINR
(C) AENIRHDCN                         (D) ECNARDNIH                                 Answer: (D)
30. Find the next number in the following series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?
(A) 63                              (B) 65
(C) 67                              (D) 69                                                                     Answer: (B)
31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument?
(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.
(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.
(C) Some of the Indians are great because India is great.
(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.                                                            Answer: (B)
32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because
(A) he is religious                                        (B) he is educated
(C) he is rich                                               (D) he is rational                                                  Answer: (D)
33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow?

I. Some religious people are morally good.

II. Some religious people are rational.

Conclusions:

(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.

(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.

(A) Only (a) follows. (B) Only (b) follows.

34. Certainty is

(A) an objective fact (B) emotionally satisfying

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I, S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non Indian scientists who are politicians.

(A) f (B) d

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.

(A) b (B) c

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below:

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot?

(A) The population increases exponentially.

(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.

(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes. Answer: (D)

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in per tones. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period?

(A) Saw timber (B) Plywood

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?

(A) 6 (B) 12

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?

(A) 2000 (B) 2002

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ?
(A) National Sample Surveys                             (B) Agricultural Statistics
(C) Census                                                          (D) Vital Statistics                                       Answer: (A)
42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is
(A) ~ 50%                                                         (B) ~ 67%
(C) ~ 97%                                                          (D) ~ 47%                                Answer: (B)
43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?
(A) 2                                                                  (B) 8
(C) 10                                                                (D) 16                                             Answer: (B)
44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System?
(A) Microsoft Word                                          (B) Microsoft Excel
(C) Microsoft Access                                        (D) Microsoft Windows                    Answer: (D)
45. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23?
(A) 01011                                                          (B) 10111
(C) 10011                                                        (D) None of the above                      Answer: (D)

46. Which one of the following is different from other members?
(A) Google                                                          (B) Windows
(C) Linux                                                            (D) Mac                                            Answer: (A)
47. Where does a computer add and compare its data?
(A) CPU                                                            (B) Memory
(C) Hard disk                                                   (D) Floppy disk                                 Answer: (C)
48. Computers on an internet are identified by
(A) e-mail address                                          (B) street address
(C) IP address                                                (D) None of the above                      Answer: (C)
49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of
(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.
(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.
(C) Transparency and accountability in Public authorities.
(D) All of the above                                                                                                     Answer: (D)
50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives?
(A) Hydrological                                         (B) Hydro-meteorological
(C) Geological                                             (D) Geo-chemical                                  Answer: (B)
51. Dioxins are produced from
(A) Wastelands                                            (B) Power plants
(C) Sugar factories                                       (D) Combustion of plastics                   Answer: (D)
52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for
(A) Social forestry programme                   (B) Clean Air programme
(C) Soil conservation programme              (D) Environmental protection programme                Answer: (A)

53. The main constituents of biogas are
(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide                  (B) Methane and Nitric oxide
(C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide      (D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide    Answer: (A)
54. Assertion (A): In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.
Reason (R): The population of the world has been growing significantly.
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.                                                                                         Answer: (B)
55. Climate change has implications for
1. soil moisture                                         2. forest fires
3. biodiversity                                           4. ground water
Identify the correct combination according to the code:
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3                                          (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4                                      (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4                                             Answer: (B)
56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of

(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.

(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.

(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.

(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned. Answer: (C)

57. Which option is not correct?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall

Under 64^th entry of Union list.

(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment

Act 1976.

(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86^th Constitutional Amendment. Answer: (C)

58. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India?

(A) It is celebrated on 5^th September every year.

(B) It is celebrated on 11^th November every year.

(D) It is being celebrated since 2008 Answer: (A)

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Articles of the Constitution) List – II (Institutions)
(a) Article 280                                         (i) Administrative Tribunals
(b) Article 324                                         (ii) Election Commission of India
(c) Article 323                                        (iii) Finance Commission at Union level
(d) Article 315                                         (iv) Union Public Service Commission
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)                              (B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)                              (D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)                                          Answer: (A)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to

(A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.

(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.

(C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively without the permission of the UGC.

(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council

Answer: (C)

Net Dec 2010 management paper I

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms?

(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be classified as

(A) Descriptive Survey (B) Experimental Research

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of

(A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study

(A) Vocational Interest

(B) Professional Competence

(D) Achievement Motivation Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10:

It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage?

(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.

(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.

(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement. Answer: (B)

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was

(A) Physical (B) Cultural

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a

(A) historical movement (B) voice of the Indian people

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could

(A) preach morality (B) reach the heart of Indians

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with

(A) objective conditions of masses (B) the Gandhian ideology

10. The author concludes the passage by

(A) criticising the Indian masses (B) the Gandhian movement

Answer: (C)

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as

(A) Networked media (B) Connective media

12. The information function of mass communication is described as

(A) diffusion (B) publicity

13. An example of asynchronous medium is

(A) Radio (B) Television

14. In communication, connotative words are

(A) explicit (B) abstract

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as

(A) embedded text (B) internal text

16. In analog mass communication, stories are

(A) static (B) dynamic

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS : NEVER and then select from the following pair of words which have a similar relationship :

(A) often : rarely

(B) frequently : occasionally

(D) intermittently : casually

Answer: (A)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence: 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16

(A) 27

(B) 34

(D) 48

Answer: (B)

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as

(A) 30

(B) 37

(D) 41

Answer: (B)

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set: AF : IK : : LQ : ?

(A) MO

(B) NP

(D) TV

Answer: (D)

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Answer: (A)

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The percentage of those who passed in both subjects is

(A) 10

(B) 20

(D) 40

Answer: (D)

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ? Statements:

I. Some flowers are red.

II. Some flowers are blue.

Conclusions:

(a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.

(b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

(A) Only (a) follows.

(B) Only (b) follows.

(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

Answer: (D)

24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false?

(i) No students are intelligent.

(ii) Some students are intelligent.

(iii) Some students are not intelligent.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(D) (i) only

Answer: (B)

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called

(A) Deductive Reasoning

(B) Inductive Reasoning

(D) Transcendental Reasoning

Answer: (B)

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks?

(A) 5

(B) 7

(D) 3

Answer: (D)

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.

(i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.

(ii) Miss B sits right to the barber

(iii) The washerman sits right to the barber

(iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C

What are the trades of A and B?

(A) Tailor and barber

(B) Barber and cook

(D) Tailor and washerman

Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables?

(A) Scatter Diagram

(B) Frequency Distribution

(D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation

Answer: (D)

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP)?

(A) MTNL

(B) BSNL

(D) Infotech India Ltd.

Answer: (D)

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols

(A) 0 – 7

(B) 0 – 9 , A – F

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

31. The binary equivalent of (–15)₁₀ is (2’s complement system is used)

(A) 11110001

(B) 11110000

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

32. 1 GB is equal to

(A) 2³⁰ bits

(B) 2³⁰ bytes

(D) 2²⁰ bytes

Answer: (B)

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called

(A) Compiler system

(B) Operation system

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for

(A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension

(B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

(D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of Government of India?

(A) Solar power

(B) Waste to energy conversion

(D) Nuclear energy

Answer: (D)

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed

(A) 500 mg/L

(B) 400 mg/L

(D) 200 mg/L

Answer: (A)

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by

(A) Arundhati Roy

(B) Medha Patkar

(D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: (D)

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are

(A) SO₂ and O₃

(B) SO₂ and NO₂

(D) SO₂ and SPM

Answer: (C)

39. Assertion (A): Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.

Reason (R): They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A)

40. Volcanic eruptions affect

(A) atmosphere and hydrosphere

(B) hydrosphere and biosphere

(D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

Answer: (D)

41. India’s first Defence University is in the State of

(A) Haryana

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Punjab

Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India

(A) conduct teaching and research only

(B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations

(D) promote research only

Answer: (C)

43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

(A) Election Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(D) Planning Commission

Answer: (D)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Indian Parliament is supreme.

(B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

(D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?

(A) Written Constitution

(B) No State religion

(D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

Answer: (D)

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India?

(A) Chief Minister of a State

(B) A member of the State Public Service Commission

(D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University

Answer: (B)

47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are mortal.’ ?

2010 December UGC NET Paper I Answer Key

Answer: (C)

The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52:

Year 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

TV 6000 9000 13000 11000 8000

LCDs 7000 9400 9000 10000 12000

48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum?

(A) 2006

(B) 2007

(D) 2010

Answer: (C)

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008?

(A) 3000

(B) 2867

(D) 2400

Answer: (Wrong question)

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010?

(A) 2007

(B) 2006

(D) 2008

Answer: (B)

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010?

(A) 4 : 3

(B) 3 : 4

(D) 2 : 3

Answer: (B)

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007?

(A) 6 : 7

(B) 7 : 6

(D) 3 : 2

Answer: (C)

53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children

(A) Are gifted

(B) Come from rich families

(D) Create indiscipline in the class

Answer: (A)

54. The most important quality of a good teacher is

(A) Sound knowledge of subject matter

(B) Good communication skills

(D) Effective leadership qualities

Answer: (A)

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship?

(A) Very informal and intimate

(B) Limited to classroom only

(D) Indifferent

Answer: (C)

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to

(A) supervise the work of their wards

(B) arrange for extra tuition

(D) interact with teachers frequently

Answer: (A)

57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be

(A) occasional roars of laughter

(B) complete silence

(D) loud discussion among students

Answer: (C)

58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination, the teacher should

(A) try to help him

(B) ask him not to talk in those terms

(D) ask him rudely to go away

Answer: (C)

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process?

(A) Systematic Activity

(B) Objective Observation

(D) Problem Solving

Answer: (B)

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable?

(A) Family size

(B) Intelligence

(D) Attitude

Answer: (B)

2011 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on (A) Primary Data only
(B) Secondary Data only
(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as
(A) Descriptive Research
(B) Sample Survey
(C) Fundamental Research
(D) Applied Research
Answer: (C)

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as
(A) Seminar
(B) Workshop
(C) Conference
(D) Symposium
Answer: (B)

4. In the process of conducting research “Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by
(A) Statement of Objectives
(B) Analysis of Data
(C) Selection of Research Tools
(D) Collection of Data
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10:

All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct: the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period.

Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of ‘methods’. His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label ‘intellectual history’ attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding.

                It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was ‘what mattered’. The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were ‘more flapdoodle’. The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have ‘licensed’ the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority.

Answer the following questions:

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand
(A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions
(C) historical trends (D) his enquiries
Answer: (A)

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of
(A) conclusions   (B) any corpus of evidence
(C) distinctiveness   (D) habitual interpretation
Answer: (D)

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from
(A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge
(C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs
Answer: (D)

8. What is philistinism?
(A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons
(C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter
Answer: (D)

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of
(A) literary criticism (B) history of science
(C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history
Answer: (D)

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is
(A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action
(C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism
Answer: (D)

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more
(A) complex structure
(B) political structure
(C) convenient structure
(D) formal structure
Answer: (C)

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as
(A) channelisation
(B) mediation
(C) encoding
(D) decoding
Answer: (A)

13. Effective communication needs a supportive
(A) economic environment
(B) political environment
(C) social environment
(D) multi-cultural environment
Answer: (C)

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s
(A) personality
(B) expectation
(C) social status
(D) coding ability
Answer: (D)

15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become
(A) myths
(B) reasons
(C) experiences
(D) convictions
Answer: (C)

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s
(A) competence
(B) pre-disposition
(C) receptivity
(D) ethnicity
Answer: (C)

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :
(A) fraction : decimal
(B) divisor : quotient
(C) top : bottom
(D) dividend : divisor
Answer: (D)

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence
125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165
(A) 130 (B) 142
(C) 153 (D) 165
Answer: (D)

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as
(A) BOBY (B) COBY
(C) DOBY (D) OOBY
Answer: (B)

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set:
K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?
(A) 10/8 (B) 10/18
(C) 11/19 (D) 10/19
Answer: (B)

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?
17, 19, 20, 9, 8
(A) Plane
(B) Moped
(C) Motor
(D) Tonga
Answer: (B)

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6
Answer: (C)

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3 ?
5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6
5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 3
Answer: (A)

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is
(A) Rectangle
(B) Circle
(C) Point
(D) Triangle
Answer: (C)

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ?
(A) Pie diagram
(B) Chorochromatic technique
(C) Isopleth technique
(D) Dot method
Answer: (B)

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification ?
(A) Qualitative
(B) Normative
(C) Spatial
(D) Quantitative
Answer: (C)

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?
(A) Administrative records
(B) Population census
(C) GIS
(D) Sample survey
Answer: (A)

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ?
(i) All men are cruel.
(ii) No men are cruel.
(iii) Some men are not cruel.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only
Answer: (D)

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols :
(A) 0 – 7
(B) 0 – 9
(C) 0 – 9, A – F
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)₁₀ in signed magnitude system is
(A) 11101100
(B) 11101101
(C) 10010011
(D) None of these
Answer: (D)

31. DNS in internet technology stands for
(A) Dynamic Name System
(B) Domain Name System
(C) Distributed Name System
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)

32. HTML stands for
(A) Hyper Text Markup Language
(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language
(C) Hyper Text Managing Links
(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links
Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?
(A) Ethernet
(B) Token Ring
(C) FDDI
(D) All of the above
Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.
(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.
(C) COS is smart card operating system.
(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.
Answer: (B)

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year
(A) 1986
(B) 1988
(C) 1990
(D) 1992
Answer: (A)

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India :
(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind
(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind
(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind
(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal
Answer: (B)

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes
(A) Skeletal damage
(B) Gastrointestinal problem
(C) Dermal and nervous problems
(D) Liver/Kidney problems
Answer: (C)

38. The main precursors of winter smog are
(A) N₂O and hydrocarbons
(B) NO_x and hydrocarbons
(C) SO₂ and hydrocarbons
(D) SO₂ and ozone
Answer: (B)

39. Flash floods are caused when
(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical wind shear
(B) the atmosphere is stable
(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear
(D) winds are catabatic
Answer: (A)

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is
(A) transport sector
(B) thermal power
(C) municipal waste
(D) commercial sector
Answer: (C)

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Delhi
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (A)

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by
(A) the Central Government
(B) the State Governments
(C) the University Grants Commission
(D) Private bodies and Individuals
Answer: (C)

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India ?
(A) NCTE
(B) MCI
(C) AICTE
(D) CSIR
Answer: (C)

44. Consider the following statements :
Identify the statement which implies natural justice.
(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.
(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.
(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen
(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.
Answer: (C)

45. The President of India is
(A) the Head of State
(B) the Head of Government
(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ?
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Governor of a State
Answer: (D)

Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates
Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons.
Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f:

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors.
(A) d
(B) e
(C) b
(D) g
Answer: (B)

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) g
Answer: (A)

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.
(A) e
(B) f
(C) c
(D) g
Answer: (C)

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows :
X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68
63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 67
(D) 66
Answer: (B)

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 63
(B) 62
(C) 61
(D) 60
Answer: (C)

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is
(A) 66
(B) 65
(C) 64
(D) 63
Answer: (B)

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should
(A) Allow students to do what they like.
(B) Deal with the students strictly.
(C) Give the students some problem to solve.
(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.
Answer: (D)

54. An effective teaching aid is one which
(A) is colourful and good looking
(B) activates all faculties
(C) is visible to all students
(D) easy to prepare and use
Answer: (B)

55. Those teachers are popular among students who
(A) develop intimacy with them
(B) help them solve their problems
(C) award good grades
(D) take classes on extra tuition fee
Answer: (B)

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is
(A) a variety of teaching aids
(B) lively student-teacher interaction
(C) pin-drop silence
(D) strict discipline
Answer: (B)

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should
(A) ask them to meet after the class
(B) tell them about himself in brief
(C) ignore the demand and start teaching
(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand
Answer: (B)

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher
(A) frequently talks about values
(B) himself practices them
(C) tells stories of great persons
(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses
Answer: (B)

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are
(A) spirit of free enquiry
(B) reliance on observation and evidence
(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge
(D) all the above
Answer: (D)

60. Research is conducted to
I. Generate new knowledge
II. Not to develop a theory
III. Obtain research degree
IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) I, III & II (B) III, II & IV
(C) II, I & III (D) I, III & IV
Answer: (D)

2011 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. Photo bleeding means

(A) Photo cropping

(B) Photo placement

(D) Photo colour adjustment

Answer: (D)

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by

(A) Audience

(B) Communicator

(D) Media

Answer: (B)

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?

(A) English

(B) Hindi

(D) Tamil

Answer: (B)

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is

(A) 4 : 3

(B) 3 : 4

(D) 2 : 4

Answer: (A)

5. Communication with oneself is known as

(A) Organisational Communication

(B) Grapewine Communication

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

Answer: (D)

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for

(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment

(B) Satellite International Television Experiment

(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

Answer: (C)

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___

(A) 76

(B) 74

(D) 50

Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series

MPSV..…

(A) X

(B) Y

(D) A

Answer: (B)

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?

(A) 3

(B) 6

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:

(A) Definite descriptions

(B) Proper names

(D) Common names

Answer: (D)

11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.

Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.

Choose the correct answer from below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (C)

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is

(A) non-symmetrical

(B) symmetrical

(D) transitive

Answer: (D)

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:

1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.

2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.

3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.

4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (A)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition: ‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs. 10,000.

(A) persuasive

(B) precising

(D) stipulative

Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.

(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.

(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.

Answer: (A)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to

(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

Answer: (B)

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may

(A) support and entail a conclusion

(B) not support but entail a conclusion

(D) support a conclusion without entailing it

Answer: (D)

18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.

1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.

2. A sound argument may be invalid.

3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.

4. A statement may be true or false.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by

(A) 60 %

(B) 40 %

(D) 96 %

Answer: (D)

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is

(A) 10²

(B) 1023

(D) 10 !

Answer: (B)

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2?

(A) 100

(B) 110

(D) 180

Answer: (B)

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is

(A) at least 30

(B) at most 20

(D) exactly 5

Answer: (C)

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO₂ emissions from various sectors is indicated.

2011 December UGC NET Paper 1 Answer Key

23. What is the absolute CO₂ emission from domestic sector?

(A) 1.5 mmt

(B) 2.5 mmt

(D) 0.75 mmt

Answer: (D)

24. What is the absolute CO₂ emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors?

(A) 3.25 mmt

(B) 1.5 mmt

(D) 4 mmt

Answer: (A)

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones?

(A) Windows Vista

(B) Android

(D) All of the above

Answer: (B)

26. If (y)_x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ?

(A) (1111)₂

(B) (1111)₈

(D) (1111)₁₆

Answer: (A)

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following?

(A) Oracle

(B) Compiler

(D) Assembler

Answer: (B)

28. HTML is used to create

(A) machine language program

(B) high level program

(D) web server

Answer: (C)

29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System

(B) Defense Nuclear System

(D) Dependent Name Server

Answer: (A)

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.

Find the correct statement out of the following:

(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.

Answer: (C)

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Nitric oxide

(D) Aerosols

Answer: (C)

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?

(A) Oxides of nitrogen

(B) Chlorofluorocarbons

(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

Answer: (B)

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?

(A) Solar energy

(B) Wind energy

(D) Tidal energy

Answer: (A)

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?

(A) Transport sector

(B) Agriculture sector

(D) Hydropower plants

Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?

(A) Earthquake

(B) Tsunami

(D) Nuclear accident

Answer: (D)

36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement

(B) energy consumption

(D) forest cover

Answer: (A)

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is

(A) the moral values

(B) the social values

(D) the economic values

Answer: (A)

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.

(A) 10

(B) 07

(D) 09

Answer: (B)

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of

(A) The President of India

(B) Finance Minister of India

(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

Answer: (D)

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I (Commissions and Committees)	List – II (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission	(i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I	(ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee	(iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission	(iv) 1953

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (B)

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by

(A) The State Election Commission of respective States

(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India

(D) Election Department of the State Governments

Answer: (C)

42. The members of Gram Sabha are

(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas

(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker

(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

Answer: (D)

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?

(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.

(B) Evaluation twice in a year.

(D) Formative evaluation.

Answer: (C)

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should

(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.

(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.

(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.

Answer: (D)

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?

(A) Expelling those students.

(B) Isolate those students.

(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.

Answer: (D)

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?

(A) Blackboard

(B) Diorama

(D) Globe

Answer: (C)

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask

(A) meaningful questions

(B) as many questions as possible

(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time

Answer: (A)

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?

(A) He should be a learned person.

(B) He should be a well dressed person.

(D) He should be an expert in his subject.

Answer: (C)

49. A hypothesis is a

(A) law

(B) canon

(D) supposition

Answer: (D)

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?

(A) Area Sampling

(B) Multi-stage Sampling

(D) Quota Sampling

Answer: (B)

51. Controlled group condition is applied in

(A) Survey Research

(B) Historical Research

(D) Descriptive Research

Answer: (C)

52. Workshops are meant for

(A) giving lectures

(B) multiple target groups

(D) hands on training/experience

Answer: (D)

53. Which one of the following is a research tool?

(A) Graph

(B) Illustration

(D) Diagram

Answer: (C)

54. Research is not considered ethical if it

(A) tries to prove a particular point.

(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.

(D) is not of a very high standard.

Answer: (B)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60 :

The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.

The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on

(A) Consumerism

(B) Materialism

(D) Inordinate development

Answer: (D)

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means

(A) What is

(B) What ought to be

(D) Where it is

Answer: (A)

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes

(A) Economic prosperity

(B) Political development

(D) Enlightened rationalism

Answer: (D)

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies

(A) Restoration of normal vision

(B) Universe is both material and non-material

(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature

Answer: (A)

59. The contents of the passage are

(A) Descriptive

(B) Prescriptive

(D) Optional

Answer: (D)

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that

(A) universe is material

(B) matter is energy

(D) humans are irresponsible

Answer: (B)

2012 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication :
(A) Visual one way
(B) Audio-Visual one way
(C) Audio-Visual two way
(D) Visual two way
Answer: (C)

2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal
(C) Chennai (D) Mumbai
Answer: (B)

3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for broadcasting was named in the year
(A) 1926 (B) 1936
(C) 1946 (D) 1956
Answer: (B)

4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ?
(A) NTCS (B) PAL
(C) NTSE (D) SECAM
Answer: (B)

5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity
(B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity
(C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity
(D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity
Answer: (D)

6. The term “TRP” is associated with TV shows stands for
(A) Total Rating Points
(B) Time Rating Points
(C) Thematic Rating Points
(D) Television Rating Points
Answer: (D)

7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____
(A) 60 (B) 64
(C) 72 (D) 70
Answer: (C)

8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(A) N (B) M
(C) O (D) L
Answer: (B)

9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’; ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’ and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’; which digit represents ‘sunny’ ?
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 5
Answer: (A)

10. The basis of the following classification is :
‘first President of India’ ‘author of Godan’ ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’ and ‘students who work hard’
(A) Common names
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Indefinite description
Answer: (C)

11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’ the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(A) antisymmetric
(B) asymmetrical
(C) intransitive
(D) irreflexive
Answer: (D)

12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before.
Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (A)

13. If the proposition “All men are not mortal” is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below :
1. “All men are mortal” is true.
2. “Some men are mortal” is false.
3. “No men are mortal” is doubtful.
4. “All men are mortal” is false.
Code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3
Answer: (B)

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
“Abortion” means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(A) Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical
Answer: (B)

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?
(A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night.
(C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Answer: (B)

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form.
(D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
Answer: (A)

17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(A) certainty
(B) definite conclusion
(C) predictive conjecture
(D) surety
Answer: (C)

18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below :
1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
Code :
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2
Answer: (C)

19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ?
(A) B (B) C
(C) D (D) E
Answer: (C)

20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ?
(A) 20% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 33.33%
Answer: (A)

21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Answer: (A)

22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM
The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ;

Answer: (C)

23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW
Answer: (A)

24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW
(C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW
Answer: (B)

25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A) Phone lines
(B) LAN
(C) Internet
(D) a Server
Answer: (C)

26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?
(A) Pascal
(B) Microsoft Office
(C) Java
(D) C++
Answer: (B)

28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer: (D)

29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler
(C) Browser
(D) IP address
Answer: (C)

30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
Answer: (C)

31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(B) Ozone
(C) PAN
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (C)

32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A) Thermal power plants
(B) Automobiles
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (C)

33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A) Clean air (B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water (D) Salt
Answer: (D)

34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen
(D) Density
Answer: (D)

35. S and P waves are associated with
(A) floods
(B) wind energy
(C) earthquakes
(D) tidal energy
Answer: (C)

36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
Answer: (A)

37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(A) Dharmshala
(B) Shimla
(C) Solan
(D) Chandigarh
Answer: (B)

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(A) 04
(B) 05
(C) 06
(D) 08
Answer: (A)

39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (D)

40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Answer: (B)

41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
Answer: (B)

42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
Answer: (D)

43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
Answer: (D)

44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?
(A) Reliability (B) Objectivity
(C) Ambiguity (D) Validity
Answer: (C)

45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?
(A) Overhead projector
(B) Blackboard
(C) Epidiascope
(D) Slide projector
Answer: (B)

46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
Answer: (D)

47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
Answer: (D)

48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
Answer: (D)

49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research
Answer: (A)

50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ?
(A) ibid (B) et.al
(C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit.
Answer: (A)

51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study
Answer: (B)

52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
Answer: (A)

54. Research ethics do not include
(A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity
(C) Integrity (D) Objectivity
Answer: (B)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :

James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”

The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.

55. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings (D) by denying public information
Answer: (A)

56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
Answer: (A)

57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
Answer: (B)

58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
Answer: (C)

59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
Answer: (D)

2012 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words

(A) Communis and Communicare

(B) Communist and Commune

(D) Communion and Common sense

Answer: (A)

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as

(A) Mass line communication

(B) Group communication

(D) Dialogue communication

Answer: (A)

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as

(A) Transpersonal communication

(B) Intrapersonal communication

(D) Face-to-face communication

Answer: (A)

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is

(A) The Times of India

(B) The Indian Express

(D) The Deccan Herald

Answer: (A)

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was

(A) K.A. Abbas

(B) Satyajit Ray

(D) Dada Sahib Phalke

Answer: (D)

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment

Answer: (B)

7. The missing number in the series :

0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is

(A) 240 (B) 220 (C) 280 (D) 210

Answer: (D)

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is

(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 90 (D) 110

Answer: (B)

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is

(A) 4 (B) 15/2

Answer: (C)

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by

(A) AMSLR (B) MSLAR

Answer: (A)

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are

(A) 30, 20 (B) 35, 15

Answer: (A)

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is

(A) 8 (B) 10

Answer: (D)

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below:

Assertion–I: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.

Assertion–II: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.

Codes :

(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.

(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.

(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.

Answer: (B)

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?

(A) All men are honest.

(B) Some men are honest.

(D) All of the above.

Answer: (A)

15. A stipulative definition is

(A) always true

(B) always false

(D) neither true nor false

Answer: (D)

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.

Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor –?

(A) Customer (B) Path-finder

Answer: (D)

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?

I. All obedient persons are students.

II. All students are obedient.

III. Some students are obedient.

IV. Some students are not disobedient.

Codes :

(A) I & II (B) II & III

Answer: (C)

18. Choose the right code:

A deductive argument claims that:

I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.

II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.

III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.

IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.

Codes:

(A) I and II (B) I and III

Answer: (A)

On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :

Government Expenditures on Social Services

(As percent of total expenditure)

Sl. No.	Items	2007-08	2008-09	2009-10	2010-11
	Social Services	11.06	12.94	13.06	14.02
(a)	Education, sports & youth affairs	4.02	4.04	3.96	4.46
(b)	Health & family welfare	2.05	1.91	1.90	2.03
(c)	Water supply, housing, etc.	2.02	2.31	2.20	2.27
(d)	Information & broadcasting	0.22	0.22	0.20	0.22
(e)	Welfare to SC/ST & OBC	0.36	0.35	0.41	0.63
(f)	Labour and employment	0.27	0.27	0.22	0.25
(g)	Social welfare & nutrition	0.82	0.72	0.79	1.06
(h)	North-eastern areas	0.00	1.56	1.50	1.75
(i)	Other social services	1.29	1.55	1.87	1.34
	Total Government expenditure	100.00	100.00	100.00	100.00

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than

5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?

(A) One (B) Three

Answer: (D)

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?

(A) 2007-08 (B) 2008-09

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?

(A) North-eastern areas (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC

Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?

(A) Information & broadcasting (B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC

Answer: (D)

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?

(A) Education, sports & youth affairs (B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC

Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?

(A) Labour and employment (B) Health & family welfare

Answer: (A)

25. ALU stands for

(A) American Logic Unit

(B) Alternate Local Unit

(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit

Answer: (D)

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called

(A) Microprocessor

(B) System Board

(D) Mother Board

Answer: (D)

27. Computer Virus is a

(A) Hardware (B) Bacteria

Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) (17)₁₀= (17)₁₆

(B) (17)₁₀ = (17)₈

(D) (17)₁₀ = (10001)₂

Answer: (D)

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.

(A) .pdf (B) .doc

Answer: (C)

30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.

(A) TCP (B) FTP

Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?

(A) Wetlands

(B) Foam Industry

(D) Cement Industry

Answer: (A)

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to

(A) Lead (B) Mercury

Answer: (B)

33. Biomagnification means increase in the

(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms

(B) number of species

(D) biomass

Answer: (A)

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to

(A) Climate change

(B) Ozone depletion

(D) Biodiversity

Answer: (D)

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is

(A) Solar energy

(B) Nuclear energy

(D) Wind energy

Answer: (C)

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies

(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.

(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.

(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.

Answer: (A)

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?

(A) Literacy Rate

(B) Gross Enrolment

(D) Life Expectancy

Answer: (C)

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after

(A) the U.K. (B) the U.S.A.

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?

1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.

2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.

3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

4. He has a fixed tenure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?

1. His Excellency 2. Mahamahim

3. Hon’ble 4. Shri/Smt.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3

Answer: (C)

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?

1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.

2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.

3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.

4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List – II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme (i) Mid-day Meals

(b) Human Development Scheme (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)

(d) Minimum Need Scheme (iv) MNREGA

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer: (A)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have

(A) ability to learn only

(B) requisite level of motivation only

(D) desired level of ability and motivation

Answer: (D)

44. Classroom communication must be

(A) Teacher centric

(B) Student centric

(D) Textbook centric

Answer: (B)

45. The best method of teaching is to

(A) impart information

(B) ask students to read books

(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it

Answer: (D)

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate

(A) Argument

(B) Information

(D) Controversy

Answer: (C)

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that

(A) punishment in the class should be banned.

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.

(D) children should be beaten with rods.

Answer: (C)

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as

(A) Interpersonal

(B) Mass communication

(D) Face-to-face communication

Answer: (C)

49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?

(A) Impact factor

(B) h-index

(D) i10-index

Answer: (A)

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means

(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.

(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.

(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.

(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.

Answer: (B)

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

(A) Convenience sampling

(B) Quota sampling

(D) Stratified sampling

Answer: (D)

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?

(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill

Answer: (A)

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :

1. Identification of research problem

2. Listing of research objectives

3. Collection of data

4. Methodology

5. Data analysis

6. Results and discussion

(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6

(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6

Answer: (B)

54. Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.

(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.

(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.

Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):

The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is

(A) Positive (B) Negative

Answer: (B)

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to

(A) 30 million (B) 40 million

Answer: (A)

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in

(A) How well the situation has been managed.

(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.

(D) How fast the environment has degraded.

Answer: (A)

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?

(A) Tempo of urbanization (B) Provision of basic services

Answer: (A)

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on

(A) Extension of Knowledge

(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness

(D) Descriptive Statement

Answer: (C)

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state

(A) The hazards of the urban life (B) The sufferings of the urban life

Answer: (D)

2013 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer: (D)

2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer: (B)

3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Answer: (B)

4. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B)

5. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature.
(B) Integrity in human nature.
(C) Uniformity in human nature.
(D) Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C)

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11:

Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)

Year	Fruits	Vegetables	Flowers	Total Horticulture Area
2005-06	53	72	1	187
2006-07	56	75	1	194
2007-08	58	78	2	202
2008-09	61	79	2	207
2009-10	63	79	2	209

6. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D)

7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 perctent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: (C)

9. Find out the horticultural crops that have recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10.
(A) Fruits
(B)Vegetables
(C) Flower
(D)Total horticulture
Answer: (B)

10. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007-08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: (B)

11. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Answer: (A)

12. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Answer: (C)

13. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Answer: (B)

14. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine languages is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)

15. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)

16. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language
(D) words to bits
Answer: (B)

17. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)

18. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
Answer: (C)

19. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (C)

20. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (A)

21. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D)

23. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C)

24. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)

25. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D)

26. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)

27. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.

(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehaviors or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)

29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)

30. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C)

31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (C) and (D) Both

32. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D)

33. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D)

34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B)

35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C)

36. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C)

37. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C)

39. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D)

40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: (D)

41. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (42 to 47):

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis, it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

42. Marble stone used for the construction of te Taj Mahal was brought from te ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur

(B) Makrana

(D) Jaipur

Answer: (B)

43. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan

(B) Tourists

(D) European travellers

Answer: (D)

44. Point out the true statement from the following:

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.

(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the “Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal”.

Answer: (C)

45. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A) Mumtazabad

(B) Mumtaz Mahal

(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara

Answer: (D)

46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632-1636 A.D.

(B) 1630-1643 A.D.

(D) 1636-1643 A.D.

Answer: (C)

47. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman

(B) Sale Deed

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

48. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?

(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect.

Answer: (C)

49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant

(B) James Augustus Hicky

(D) A.O. Hume

Answer: (B)

50. Press censorsip in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister

(A) Rajeev Gandhi

(B) Narasimha Rao

(D) Deve Gowda

Answer: (C)

51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment

(B) Interactive communication

(D) Communication

Answer: (B)

52. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of

(A) Infotainment

(B) Edutainment

(D) Enlightenment

Answer: (B)

53. __________________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.

(A) Sympathy

(B) Empathy

(D) Antipathy

Answer: (B)

54. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by

(A) UJHFS

(B) UHJSE

(D) HUJSE

Answer: (A)

55. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is

(A) 8

(B) 10

(D) 210

Answer: (B)

56. The missing number in the series

40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110

(B) 270

(D) 210

Answer: (B)

57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6^th position is

(A) 18

(B) 24

(D) 36

Answer: (C)

58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is 100. IF c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is

(A) 30

(B) 85/2

(D) 110

Answer: (D)

59. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by

(A) 20%

(B) 30%

(D) 50%

Answer: (D)

60. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below:

(i) All men are honest

(ii) No men are honest

(iii) Some men are not honest.

(iv) All men are dishonest.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

2013 September UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?
(A) ~ 80 years
(B) ~ 40 years
(C) ~ 160 years
(D) ~ 320 years
Answer: (A)

2. Telephone is an example of
(A) linear communication
(B) non-linear communication
(C) circular
(D) mechanised
Answer: (A)

3. Means of grapevine communication are
(A) formal
(B) informal
(C) critical
(D) corporate
Answer: (B)

4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(A) ILO
(B) ITU
(C) UNDP
(D) UNESCO
Answer: (D)

5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(A) reality
(B) falsity
(C) negativity
(D) passivity
Answer: (A)

6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(A) non-pervasive treasure
(B) limited judgement
(C) autonomous virtue
(D) cultural capital
Answer: (D)

7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) affective
(C) cognitive
(D) non-selective
Answer: (C)

8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 20
(D) 21
Answer: (C)

9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 52
(D) 24
Answer: (D)

10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is
(A) C
(B) D
(C) A
(D) F
Answer: (D)

11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(A) 238
(B) 432
(C) 542
(D) 320
Answer: (A)

12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(A) 236
(B) 240
(C) 248
(D) 256
Answer: (B)

13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(A) QRUWK
(B) RQWUK
(C) RWQUK
(D) RWUKQ
Answer: (A)

14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?
(A) Yadav
(B) Arjun
(C) Rajesh
(D) Kamal
Answer: (B)

15. A deductive argument can not be valid :
(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.
(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.
(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.
(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.
Answer: (B)

16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.
(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.
(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (B)

17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?
(A) Contrary
(B) Sub-contrary
(C) Sub-alternation
(D) Contradictory
Answer: (B)

18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.
(A) Garments, cloth and shirts
(B) Cloth, garments and shirts
(C) Shirts, garments and cloth
(D) Garments, shirts and cloth
Answer: (B)

19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?
(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.
(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.
(C) All pessimists are atheists.
(D) None of the above.
Answer: (A)

In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)

Year	Coal & Lignite	Crude Petroleum	Natural Gas	Electricity (Hydro & Nuclear)	Total
2006-07	7459	1423	1223	4763	14,868
2007-08	7926	1429	1248	4944	15,547
2008-09	8476	1403	1265	5133	16,277
2009-10	9137	1411	1830	4511	16,889
2010-11	9207	1579	2012	5059	17,857

20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) 2010–11
Answer: (C)

21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity
(D) Total production of energy
Answer: (A)

22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?
(A) Coal & lignite
(B) Crude petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity
Answer: (A)

23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?
(A) 2006–07
(B) 2007–08
(C) 2008–09
(D) 2009–10
Answer: (C)

24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(A) net protocol
(B) netiquette
(C) net ethics
(D) net morality
Answer: (B)

25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(A) Net ads
(B) Internet commercials
(C) Webmercials
(D) Viral advertisements
Answer: (C)

26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term
(A) Internet society
(B) Electronic society
(C) Network society
(D) Telematic society
Answer: (C)

27. GIF stands for
(A) Global Information Format
(B) Graphics Information Format
(C) Graphics Interchange File
(D) Graphics Interchange Format
Answer: (D)

28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?
(A) IBM AIX
(B) Linux
(C) Sun Solaris
(D) Firefox
Answer: (D)

29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?
1. Punjabi University, Patiala
2. Osmania University, Hyderabad
3. Kashmir University, Srinagar
4. St. Stephens College, Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: (D)

30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?
1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?
1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.
2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.
4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?
(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(B) Assam and Nagaland
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?
1. Birth
2. Descent
3. Naturalisation
4. Incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D)

34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?
1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.
2. It serves as an advisory body.
3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.

In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.

35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(C) A Committee of Publicity
(D) Women’s Organizations
Answer: (B)

36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?
Choose the answer from codes given below :
(i) Representatives from different political parties.
(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.
(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.
(iv) None of the above.
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii)
(B) (i), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii)
(D) (iv)
Answer: (A)

37. Aruna earned respect because of
(A) she identified with the leftists
(B) she did not associate with any political party
(C) chairing a Steering Committee
(D) she identified with women’s organizations
Answer: (B)

38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?
(A) Women Organizations
(B) Leftists
(C) Steering Committee
(D) Some Political Parties
Answer: (B)

39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(A) 1985 – 2002
(B) 1998 – 2000
(C) 1981 – 2000
(D) 1989 – 2001
Answer: (C)

40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were
(A) Role of media
(B) Economic justice
(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

41. A good teacher must be
(A) resourceful and autocratic
(B) resourceful and participative
(C) resourceful and authoritative
(D) resourceful and dominant
Answer: (B)

42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture method
(B) Discussion method
(C) Demonstration method
(D) Question-Answer method
Answer: (C)

43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is
(A) Circular
(B) Reciprocal
(C) Directional
(D) Influential
Answer: (B)

44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?
(A) Placement evaluation
(B) Formative evaluation
(C) Diagnostic evaluation
(D) Summative
Answer: (B)

45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?
(A) Macro teaching
(B) Team teaching
(C) Cooperative teaching
(D) Micro teaching
Answer: (D)

46. CLASS stands for
(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Answer: (C)

47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?
(A) Single group experiment
(B) Residual group experiment
(C) Parallel group experiment
(D) Rational group experiment
Answer: (B)

48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?
(A) t-test
(B) Sign test
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Run test
Answer: (A)

49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)

50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :
(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings
(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings
(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings
(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection
Answer: (A)

51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(A) Basic Science
(B) Applied Science
(C) Social Science
(D) Literature
Answer: (D)

52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?
(A) Univariate analysis
(B) Factor analysis
(C) Case studies
(D) SWOT analysis
Answer: (B)

53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(A) antecedent variable
(B) precedent variable
(C) predictor variable
(D) control variable
Answer: (D)

54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Cluster Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
Answer: (D)

55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(A) 20,000 MW of wind power
(B) 25,000 MW of wind power
(C) 20,000 MW of solar power
(D) 10,000 MW of solar power
Answer: (C)

56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?
(A) Manas
(B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Seshachalam Hills
(D) Greater Nicobar
Answer: (D)

57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Hydroelectric power generation
(C) Industry
(D) Urbanisation
Answer: (A)

58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I (Biosphere Reserve)	List – II (Area of Location)
a. Nilgiri	i. Deccan Peninsula
b. Manas	ii. Chhattisgarh
c. Similipal	iii. Eastern Himalaya
d. Achankmar- Amarkantak	iv. Western Ghat

Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
Answer: (D)

59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?
(A) Mexico
(B) Brazil
(C) China
(D) Korea
Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) USA
(D) India
Answer: (C)

2013 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

1. The post-industrial society is designated as

(A) Information society

(B) Technology society

(D) Non-agricultural society

Answer: (A)

2. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for

(A) Commercial communication

(B) Military purposes

(D) Political campaigns

Answer: (B)

3. Internal communication within institutions done through

(A) LAN

(B) WAN

(D) MMS

Answer: (A)

4. Virtual reality provides

(A) Sharp pictures

(B) Individual audio

(D) Preview of new films

Answer: (C)

5. The first virtual university of India came up in

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (D)

6. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:

(i) Limits to Growth

ii) Silent Spring

(iii) Our Common Future

(iv) Resourceful Earth

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

7. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?

(A) Africa

(B) Asia

(D) North America

Answer: (A)

8. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this?

(A) Realist

(B) Essentialist

(D) Deep ecology

Answer: (B)

9. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?

(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.

(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.

(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

Answer: (A)

10. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the following:

(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach

(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach

(D) Watershed Development Approach

Answer: (D)

11. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is

(A) Thermal power sector

(B) Transport sector

(D) Domestic sector

Answer: (B)

12. ln a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of

(A) Methane

(B) Hydrogen

(D) CNG

Answer: (B)

13. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?

(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)

(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)

(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Answer: (A)

14. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?

1. It is an autonomous institution.

2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.

3. It is located in Delhi.

4. It has regional offices.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (B)

15. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its

(A) Advisory Jurisdiction

(B) Appellate Jurisdiction

(D) Writ Jurisdiction

Answer: (C)

16. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. There are seven Union Territories in India.

2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies

3. One Union Territory has a High Court.

4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

17. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?

1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.

2. The chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the president of India.

3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of Rs 25,000

4. It can punish an errant officer.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

18. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?

(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)

(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)

(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

Answer: (A)

19. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be

(A) EKNJFTGP

(B) EJKNFTGP

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

20. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7/- whereas that of mango is Rs 5/-

If the person has Rs. 38, the number of apples he can buy is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (D)

21. A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife," The lady is related to the man as

(A) Mother's sister

(B) Grand mother

(D) Sister of Father-in-law

Answer: (D)

22. In this series 6, 4, 1,2,2,8, 7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,2,7,1,4,1,3,5,8,6.

How many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

23. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65; The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is

(A) 85

(B) 60

(D) 65

Answer: (A)

24. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is

(A) 6 years

(B) 8 years

(D) 16 years

Answer: (C)

25. Which of the following is a social network?

(A) amazon.com

(B) eBay

(D) Twitter

Answer: (D)

26. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as

(A) Universe

(B) Inference

(D) Statistics

Answer: (D)

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 27 to 32

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property. (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering Institutes, as has been done in Europe.

Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based. It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

27. The outlook for conservation heritage changed

(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property

(B) after training the specialists in the field.

(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.

Answer: (A)

28. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of

(A) increasing number of members to 126.

(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.

(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration

Answer: (B)

29. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be

(A) Financial support from the Government of India.

(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.

(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance.

Answer: (C)

30. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments percentage comes to

(A) 10 percent

(B) 11 percent

(D) 13 percent

Answer: (B)

31. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?

(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.

(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.

(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.

(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.

Choose the correct statement

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (B)

32. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is

(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

Answer: (D)

33. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should

(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.

(B) punish those causing disturbance

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class

Answer: (C)

34. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher's satisfaction.

(B) Teacher's honesty and commitment

(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.

Answer: (C)

35. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills

(B) Modification of behaviour

(D) Inculcation of knowledge

Answer: (B)

36. Arrange the following teaching process in order:

(i) Relate the Present knowledge with Previous one

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Reteaching

(iv) Formulating instructional objectives

(v) Presentation of instructional materials

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)

Answer: (D)

37. CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

Answer: (C)

38. Teacher's role at higher education

(A) provide information to students.

(B) promote self learning in students.

(D) help students to solve their problems.

Answer: (B)

39. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social scientists

(B) American philosophers

(D) Italian political Analysts

Answer: (A)

40. The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-vaiation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation

(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations

(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.

Answer: (A)

41. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(D) Randomisation

Answer: (D)

42. Which is the main objective of research?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Answer: (D)

43. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(D) process of analysis

Answer: (B)

44. The Principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(D) historical research

Answer: (B)

45. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active audience

(D) Negative audience

Answer: (B)

46. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration

(B) Institutionalisation

(D) Discourse

Answer: (D)

47. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions

(B) Perceptions

(D) Creations

Answer: (B)

48. In communication myths have power but are

(A) uncultural

(B) insignificant

(D) unprefered

Answer: (C)

49. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar

(B) API

(D) Samachar Bharati

Answer: (C)

50. Organisational communication can be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication

(B) inter personal communication

(D) mass comrnunication

Answer: (C)

51. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(D) Sub-alteration

Answer: (A)

52. Ananaya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?

(A) Archana

(B) Bulbul

(D) Krishna

Answer: (C)

53. A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(D) Neither true nor false

Answer: (D)

54. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

Answer: (C)

55. Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is

What type of argument is contained in the above passage?

(A) Deductive

(B) Astrological

(D) Mathematical

Answer: (C)

56. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises:

(i) All saints are religious. (major)

(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)

Codes

(A) All saints are honest

(B) Some saints are honest.

Answer: (C)

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the’ world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 57 to 60 based on this table.

Region	Number of Foreign Tourist Arrival
Region	2007	2008	2009
Western Europe	1686083	1799525	1610086
North America	1007276	1027297	1024469
South Asia	982428	1051846	982633
South East Asia	303475	332925	348495
East Asia	352037	355230	318292
West Asia	171661	215542	201110
Total FTAs in India	5081504	5282603	5108579

57. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(D) South East Asia

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(D) West Asia

Answer: (D)

59. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.

(A) Western Europe

(B) South East Asia

(D) West Asia

Answer: (A)

60. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.

(A) Western Europe

(B) North America

(D) East Asia

Answer: (C)

2014 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

This page will provide solved question papers of previous years or old question paper with answer keys of National Eligibility Test (NET) Examination of University Grants Commission (UGC) June 2014 for paper 1, Test Booklet Code (Set or Series) W. The paper I is the general or compulsory for all subjects with the subject code 00. The question and answer of Set X, Y and Z are not mentioned as they are same with that of Set W.

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short Circuit

(B) Contradiction

(D) Entropy

Answer: (A)

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory

(D) Information theory

Answer: (A)

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on

(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan

(D) Gulzar

Answer: (D)

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) Publish

(B) Secure

(D) Change

Answer: (B)

5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as

(A) Sparks

(B) Green Dots

(D) Rain Drops

Answer: (C)

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) Noise

(B) Audience

(D) Feedback

Answer: (A)

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs 7, Rs 8, Rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is

(A) 19

(B) 20

(D) 29

Answer: (A)

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?

(A) OMESUCEM

(B) OMESICSM

(D) OMESISCM

Answer: (C)

9. lf the series 4,5,8,13,14,17,22,........ is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?

(A) 31

(B) 32

(D) 35

Answer: (C)

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP: ..:........by choosing one of the following option given :

(A) TS

(B) ST

(D) SR

Answer: (A)

11. A man started walking frorn his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left walked 5 Km after. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?

(A) 3 km

(B) 4 km

(D) 6 km

Answer: (C)

12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?

(A) 32

(B) 36

(D) 38

Answer: (A)

13. "lf a large diamond is cut up into little bits it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers. It loses its strength." The argument put above may be called as

(A) Analogical

(B) Deductive

(D) Casual

Answer: (A)

14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.

(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.

(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.

(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment

Answer: (A)

15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but cannot both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called

(A) contradictory

(B) contrary

(D) subaltern

Answer: (C,D)

16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All dogs are mammals.

(b) No cats are dogs.

Conclusions:

(i) No cats are mammals

(ii) Some cats are mammals.

(iii) No Dogs are cats

(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.

Codes:

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii)

(D) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (D)

17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each of Indians. The circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p,q,r,s... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

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(A) q and s only

(B) s only

(D) p, q and s only

Answer: (B)

Read the following table and answer question no 18-22 based on table

Year	Government Canals	Private Canals	Tanks	Tube wells and other wells	Other sources	Total
1997-98	17117	211	2593	32090	3102	55173
1998-99	17093	212	2792	33988	3326	57411
1999-00	16842	194	2535	34623	2915	57109
2000-01	15748	203	2449	33796	2880	55076
2001-02	15031	209	2179	34906	4347	56672
2002-03	13863	206	1802	34250	3657	53778
2003-04	14444	206	1908	35779	4281	56618
2004-05	14696	206	1727	34785	7453	58867
2005-06	15268	207	2034	35372	7314	60196

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(D) Other Sources

Answer: (A)

19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Tanks

(D) Other Sources

Answer: (B)

20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(D) 2005-06

Answer: (A)

21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.

(A) Government Canals

(B) Private Canals

(D) Other sources

Answer: (A)

22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?

(A) 1998-99

(B) 2000-01

(D) 2004-05

Answer: (D)

23. The acronym FTP stands for

(A) File Transfer Protocol

(B) Fast Transfer Protocol

(D) File Transfer Procedure

Answer: (A)

24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?

(A) PNG

(B) GIF

(D) GUI

Answer: (D)

25. The first Web Browser is

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Netscape

(D) Firefox

Answer: (B)

26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by

(A) RAM

(B) ROM

(D) TCP

Answer: (A)

27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?

(A) MAC address

(B) Hardware address

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(D) IP address

Answer: (D)

28. Identify the IP address from the following

(A) 300 .215.317.3

(B) 302.215@417.5

(D) 202-50-20-148

Answer: (C)

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is l5 x I06 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be

(A) 54 million metric tons

(B) 540 million metric tons

(D) 2400 million metric tons

Answer: (D)

30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?

(A) Paris

(B) London

(D) Beijing

Answer: (C)

31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is

(A) run-off urban areas

(B) run-off from agricultural forms

(D) industrial effluents

Answer: (A,C)

32. 'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving

(A) eruption of large amount of material

(B) strong winds

(D) strong wind and water waves

Answer: (A)

33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by

(A) 1.5 oC to 2 oC

(B) 2.0 oC to 3.5 oC

(D) 0.25 oC to 0.5 oC

Answer: (A)

34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of

(A) Environment

(B) Water Resources

(D) Defence

Answer: (C)

35. Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I List - II

(a) Flood (1) Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration

(b) Drought (2) Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth

(d) Valcano (4) Excess rain and uneven distribution of water

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 1 2 3

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (A)

36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?

(A) Chlorofluorocarbon

(B) Carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrous oxide

Answer: (C)

37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:

(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.

(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.

(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.

(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(D) (i) and (iv)

Answer: (B)

38. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the planning Commission?

(A) Chairman

(B) Deputy Chairman

(D) Member Secretary

Answer: (B)

39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(D) Residuary Powers

Answer: (C)

40. Which of the following are Central Universities?

1. Pondicherry University

2. Vishwa Bharati

3. H.N.B. Garhwal University

4. Kurukshetra University

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (A)

41. Consider the statement which ls followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).

Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.

Arguments: (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.

(ii) No; it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.

Codes:

(A) Only argument (i) is strong.

(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer: (A)

42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?

(A) Assam University

(B) Delhi University

(D) Pondicherry University

Answer: (B)

43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?

1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.

2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.

3. President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.

4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (C)

44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of the students

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A)

45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?

(A) Lecture

(B) Discussion

(D) Narration

Answer: (C)

46. Dyslexia is associated with

(A) mental disorder

(B) behavioural disorder

(D) writing disorder

Answer: (C)

47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to

(A) INFLIBNET

(B) Consortium for Educational Communication

(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer: (A,B)

48. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective

(B) cognitive

(D) selective

Answer: (B)

49. Who among the following propounded the concept of paradigm?

(A) Peter Haggett

(B) Von Thunen

(D) John K. Wright

Answer: (C)

50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in

(A) The appendix

(B) A separate chapter

(D) The text itself

Answer: (D)

51. A thesis statement is

(A) an observation

(B) a fact

(D) a discussion

Answer: (A)

52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as

(A) positive paradigm

(B) critical paradigm

(D) interpretative paradigm

Answer: (D)

53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling?

(A) Simple Random

(B) Purposive

(D) Stratified

Answer: (B,D)

54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.

(A) Placement

(B) Diagnostic

(D) Summative

Answer: (A,C)

55. The research stream of immediate application is

(A) Conceptual research

(B) Action research

(D) Empirical research

Answer: (B)

Instructions: Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60:

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State'. The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which manually adhere in a geographical, economic and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of hwo the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in it traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, at least before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modem Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature: It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings to rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absense of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian state?

(A) peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership

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(B) peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economical and political sense

(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups

Answer: (B)

57. The author uses the word 'State' to highlight

(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.

(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.

(D) Dependence of religion

Answer: (A)

58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'secularism'?

(A) No discrimination on religious considerations

(B) Total indifference to religion

(D) Disregard for social law

Answer: (A)

59. The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by

(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance

(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers

(D) European perception of Indian State

Answer: (A)

60. What is the striking feature of modern India?

(A) A replica of Utopian State

(B) Uniform Laws

(D) Absense of Bigotry

Answer: (A)

old ugc net papers

Monday, 14 July 2014

ugc old papers with answers

2011 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2011 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2012 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2013 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2013 September UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2013 December UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

2014 June UGC NET Previous Years Solved Paper I

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